14
Dec

Melissa G asked:

I had a mobile home repo’d in 2001. I was never contacted by the company for the difference after the sale at auction. So I never worried about it. I’ve since found out the dept was sold to a collection agency after the auction. Again, no attempts to collect for 5 years. Now I get a letter saying pay in full or legal action will be taken. How does the statue of limitations work with this? Does the statue start at the time of the default on the loan, or at the time of the sale of the dept to the new company? The original creditor is not reporting to the credit bureaus, but the collection agency is? I live in Illinois, and the statue is different for contracts vs. collections? Does the signed contract for the mobile home purchase still stand, even though it’s with an entirely differnt company now?

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15
Oct
~M|ssy~ asked:

Lets say a man owns his own home, which he built literally with his own 2 hands and it is completely paid for. Well he meets and marries a woman who, after moving in with him, loses her mobile home by repossession and sells her land. The woman 2 children (12 and 16) from a previous marriage. After a year of marriage, the husband puts the wife’s name on the house along with his because all is going well. But, the next year there is trouble in paradise and they decide to divorce. Who is entitled to the home? The man who built it and had lived in it for more than 20 years, or the woman?
Pyar, I am just looking for different opinions. : )
K, this isn’t about me! I’m not married, lol.

And the house is in Georgia, USA.

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